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When
is a quantization of
then one-sided ideals
in
should correspond to coisotropic submanifolds.
The motivation for this comes from characterization
We will stick to this creed and declare the following
Is this
a bijective correspondence ? Is it true that quotient by quantum
subgroups are characterized by
-invariance ? Almost.
Let
be a right coideal subalgebra. Take
In general
but not necessarily
equal. If the antipode is bijective and we restrict to
left faithfully flat right coideal subalgebras and left
faithfully coflat coisotropic quantum subgroups, then in that
case
-invariance corresponds to quotient by a coisotropic
quantum subgroup.
Pawel Witkowski
2006-06-26